Bitrix: Site Management Business V20.0.0 [Extra Quality] Full Source ⏩

Bitrix: Site Management Business V20.0.0 [Extra Quality] Full Source ⏩


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Bitrix: Site Management Business V20.0.0 Full Source

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If all else fails, remove the IE Internet security certificate by clicking on the Delete button. You can also manually uninstall the security certificate by unchecking the „Embedded Autocomplete” check box and deselecting the „Embedded Autocomplete” option under Internet Options>Security.Q:

Problem about $\phi
eq 1$ in $\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\theta}\cdot\phi(e^{i\theta})d\theta$

If $\phi(z)$ be an analytic function, then $\phi
eq 1$ in $\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\theta}\cdot\phi(e^{i\theta})d\theta$

I can’t get the value of $\phi(e^{i\theta})$,
By expanding $\phi(e^{i\theta})$,
$$\phi(e^{i\theta})=\phi(e^{i\theta})+O(z-z_0)$$
So in the RHS, we get
$$\phi(e^{i\theta})=O(z-z_0)$$
Then,
$$e^{i\theta}\cdot\phi(e^{i\theta})=O(z-z_0)e^{i\theta}$$
And now
$$\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\theta}\cdot\phi(e^{i\theta})d\theta=2\pi O(z-z_0)$$
As $|z-z_0|\leq 1$, and $\phi
eq1$, we get
$$2\pi=O(z-z_0)
eq 0$$
But I think the value must be zero. Where did I do wrong?

A:

If $\phi$ is analytic, then
$$
\phi(e^{i

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